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类型2021-2022学年山东省菏泽市单县六年级下学期期末考试 英语 试题(含答案+听力音频).docx

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    1、2021-2022学年度第二学期期终质量检测 六年级英语试题 (时间:90分钟;满分:100分)听力部分(共四节,满分30分)一、听录音,选出句中你所听到的单词或短语。听两遍。(每小题1分,满分5分)( )1. A. raceB. riceC. nice( )2. A. streetB. sleptC. sheep( )3. A. classB. glassC. grass( )4. A. shortB. shorterC. shorts( )5. A. in front ofB. in the front ofC. on the front of二、听录音,用字母A-E给下列图片排序。听两遍

    2、。(每小题1分,满分5分) 6.( ) 7.( ) 8.( ) 9.( ) 10.( )三、听录音,根据所听问题,选择正确的应答句。每个句子读两遍。(每小题2分,满分10分) ( )11. A. We will stay there for a week.B. We will go there by train.C. We will go there with Mike.( )12. A. In the afternoon.B. played basketball.C. My uncles farm.( )13. A. Teachers Day.B. Womens Day.C. Childre

    3、ns Day.( )14. A. Yes, he has.B. Yes, he does.C. No, he didnt.( )15. A. Hes going to bring some toys.B. He brings some toys.C. He brought some toys.四、听录音,根据短文内容,判断下列句子正(T)误(F)。听两遍。(每小题2分,满分10分)( )16. Mike went camping last Saturday. ( )17. Mike and his uncle went fishing in the morning. ( )18. They h

    4、ad breakfast in a restaurant. ( )19. Mike bought gifts for his parents. ( )20. Mike was excited last Saturday.笔试部分(共70分)一、选出下列每组单词中划线部分发音不同的一项。并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 (每小题1分,满分5分)()21. A. amB. nameC. camp()22. A. thin B. than C. those()23. A. cup B. cute C. under ()24. A. beach B. heavier C. weather()25. A. gr

    5、ow B. snow C. cow二、单项选择 (每小题1分,满分10分) 从每题A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。()26. My mother is cutting _ onion. It is _very big one. A. a; anB. an; aC. a; a()27. Dad, _ is my friend, Mike. Nice to meet you. Mike.A. she B. that C. this ()28. Excuse me. How can I get to the science museum?Turn right _the ho

    6、spital, then go straight. The cinema is _ the left.A. at, atB. at, on C. on, on ()29. What colour _your socks? A. beB. amC. are()30. This building has _floors. Our classroom is on the _ floor. A. four; two B. four; second C. fourth; two()31. We must _at a red light.A. stop and wait B. slow down C. g

    7、o straight()32. 选出句子语调标注正确的一项。A. Are there any tall buildings in the nature park? Yes, there are.B. Are there any tall buildings in the nature park? Yes, there are.C. Are there any tall buildings in the nature park? Yes, there are.()33. Its 9:00 a.m. now. We _.A. have an English classB. had an Engli

    8、sh class C. are having an English class()34. My sister is ill. What should she do? _A. She should wear warm clothes.B. She should take a deep breath. C. She should see a doctor.()35. We are going to take a trip next weekend. _A. Have a good time.B. Goodbye. C. See you.三、完形填空(每小题1分,满分10分)根据短文内容,从每题所给

    9、的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 Today is Saturday. Saturday 36 my favourite day. My mother goes to work as usual. But my father is 37 home. And I 38 go to school. I often do my 39 in the morning, then I play computer games 40 an hour. My father often goes to the park 41 the morning. Then he 42 books

    10、at home. My mother gets home at five oclock. She often 43 many food from the supermarket. Then my father, my mother and I 44 dinner. We are very 45 today!()36.A. isB. areC. comes()37.A. onB. inC. at()38.A. dontB. doesntC. do()39.A. houseworkB. homeworkC. study()40.A. forB. inC. at()41.A. onB. inC. a

    11、t()42.A. readB. readsC. reading()43.A. buysB. buyingC. to buy()44. A. doB. haveC. has()45.A. happyB. sadC. tired四、从栏中选出栏句子的最佳答语,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分,满分5分) ()46. Can I have some bananas? A. Its next to the door.()47. What would you like for dinner? B. Here you are.()48. How do you like this skirt? C. S

    12、he is very kind.()49. Whats your mother like? D. Its very pretty.( )50. Where is the museum shop? E. Some fish and rice, please.五、情景交际(每小题1分,满分5分)从方框中选择恰当的句子补全对话,并将其代号在答题卡上涂黑。A. What happened? B. Oh, thats too bad. C. What are you doing now?D. What are you going to do this weekend?E. How was your we

    13、ekend?Xiao Wu is chatting(聊天)with his friend Dan on QQ.Xiao Wu: Hi, Dan. 51 Dan: It was not fine.Xiao Wu: 52 Dan: I climbed mountains and hurt my legs.Xiao Wu: 53 Are you all right now?Dan: Im better now. But I cant walk fast.Xiao Wu: 54 Dan: Im watching cartoons on my computer.Xiao Wu: 55 Dan: Im g

    14、oing to stay at home and do my homework.Xiao Wu: Can I come to see you this weekend?Dan: Sure. OK! Welcome! And we can play together.Xiao Wu: Good idea! See you!六、阅读理解(语篇A每小题1分;B、C每小题2分;满分25分)A My name is Jim. David is my best friend. He is eleven years old. And I am two years older than him. He is

    15、in Beijing now. He is from the UK. But he speaks Chinese very well. Last month, we had a holiday. We left Beijing on February 1st and got to Harbin on the 2nd. We went to a park that day. We sang and danced. On the 3rd, we went shopping. On the 4th, we did our homework. On the 5th, we went iceskatin

    16、g. On the 6th, we bought gifts for our friends. We got back to Beijing by plane on the 7th. On the last day of the holiday, we stayed at home and prepared(准备) to go back to school. 根据短文内容,按要求完成下列任务:任务一:选择正确的图片。()56. What did they do on February 3rd? A B C ()57. Where did they go on the first day in

    17、Harbin? A B C ()58. How did they get back to Beijing on February 7th? A B C任务二:根据短文内容选择正确答案。()59. Jim is_ years old.A. nine B. eleven C. thirteen()60. Where were they on the last day of the holiday?A. Beijing. B. The UK. C. Harbin.BOne day, Mr Read and his son Robert were going for a walk. He put on

    18、 a pair of shoes together with a pair of different socks, one white and one yellow. As he came out of his house, his son noticed(注意) the colours of his fathers socks and said,“ you have put on two different socks, dad.”When he heard this, he looked at his socks and found that his son was right. He w

    19、as happy and said to himself,“ My son is so clever!” Then he said to his son to go back to the house to get another (别的)pair of socks for him.When the son went back to the house, all he could find was one white sock and one yellow sock. Robert then took the socks to his father and said, “Its no use

    20、changing! These socks at home are also different, one yellow and one white.”根据短文内容判断下列句子正(A)误(B)。()61. One day Mr Read and his son were going for a walk.()62. Mr Read put on a pair of socks in the same colour.()63. Robert went back to the house to get another pair of shoes for him.()64. Robert could

    21、nt find the same socks in the house.()65. Mr Read thinks Robot is very clever.CMr. White lives in a tall building. He lives on the sixteenth floor. Every day, he takes a lift (电梯)up and down.One Saturday afternoon, (1)他和儿子一起去了超市并且买了很多东西。 They drove back and carried all the things up to the lift. Sud

    22、denly they saw a piece of paper on the wall. It said, “Dear sirs, theres something wrong with the lift. Please use the stairs now.”The son took a bag and ran upstairs quickly. But Mr. White walked and walked.At last they stood in front of their door feeling very tired. (2)Mr. White began to look for

    23、(寻找) the keys, but he could not find them. Suddenly he shouted in a loud voice, “Oh, no! I left my keys in the car.”根据短文内容,按要求完成下列任务: 任务一:回答问题 66-6866. How does Mr. White go up and down the tall building every day? 67. Why didnt they use the lift one Saturday afternoon? 68. Where were the keys? 任务二:

    24、69. 将划线句子(1)译成英语。 任务三:70. 将划线句子(2)译成汉语。 七、看图写话。(10分) 假如你是Bob, 请根据下面的自画像内容提示,以第一人称的形式写写自己的过去现在和将来。 要求:1、必须包含所提示的内容,在此基础上可自由发挥; 2、语言流畅,书写认真,时态正确; 3、50词左右。过去现在将来5 years old12 years oldAge?candies play football go fishing swim businessman drive a car_ 六年级英语参考答案及评分标准 (参考答案仅供参考,不当之处请老师们自行处理)听力部分(30分)一、1-5

    25、. ABCBC (每小题1分,满分5分)二、6-10. DCAEB (每小题1分,满分5分) 三、11-15. BACBC (每小题2分,满分10分)四、16-20. FTFFT (每小题2分,满分10分) 笔试部分(70分)一、21-25.BABAC (每小题1分,满分5分)二、26-30. BCBCB 31-35.ABCCA (每小题1分,满分10分)三、36-40.ACABA 41-45.BBABA (每小题1分,满分10分)四、46-50.BEDCA (每小题1分,满分5分)五、51-55.EABCD (每小题1分,满分5分)六、阅读理解(25分)(A)56-60. BACCA (每小

    26、题1分,满分5分)(B)61-65. ABBAA (每小题2分,满分10分)(C) 66. He takes a lift (up and down). 67. There was something wrong with the lift. 68. In his car./ He left his keys in the car. 69. He went to the supermarket with his son and bought lots of/many things. 70.怀特先生开始寻找钥匙,但是没找到(它们)。评分说明:1本题每小题2分,满分10分,回答问题用完整的句子或短语均可;2以上仅提供了参考答案,凡答案符合题意,又无语法错误的都给分;3答案有语法错误的,每个扣0.5分,每小题扣完2分为止。七、写作(10分)评分标准:1、提示要点齐全,语句基本无误,书写规范、认真, 50词左右,得10分;2、提示要点较齐全,语句基本无误,书写规范、认真,词数较少,每写对一句得2分,最多不超过8分;3、提示要点不够全面,语句错误较多,书写规范、认真,得5分左右;4、提示要点不全,错误较多,书写不规范、不认真,得4分以下;

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